• +1-617-874-1011 (US)
  • +44-117-230-1145 (UK)
Online Customer Service
Follow Us:

Log 206 Test Question

Log 206

Test 1

  1. What is DoD’s preferred strategy for the rapid acquisition of mature technology?
    1. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System
    2. Total Life Cycle Systems Management
    3. Evolutionary Acquisition
    4. Performance Based Logistics
  2. What is the objective of Total Life Cycle Systems Management (TLCSM)?
    1. Field joint capabilities required by the Warfighter
    2. Optimize the performance of planning, programming, budgeting and execution systems (PPBES)
    3. To provide the warfighter with specific levels of capabilities represented by system readiness, availability, and logistics supportability
    4. Successfully field systems required by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)
  3. Which of the following positions is responsible for acquisition functions within each DoD component
    1. Program Executive Officer (PEO)
    2. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
    3. Component Acquisition Executive (CAE)
    4. Component Executive Officer (CEO)
  4. Which of the following is subordinate to a PEO, and is the individual with the responsibility and authority to accomplish program objectives for development, production, and sustainment?
    1. Milestone Decision Authority (MDA)
    2. Assistant Secretary of the Army for Acquisition, Technology and Logistics (ASA(ALT))
    3. Program Manager (PM)
    4. Life Cycle Logistician
  5. Which of the following is one of the three principle Decision Support Systems within the DoD Life Cycle Management Framework?
    1. Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC)
    2. The Requirements Generation System
    3. Performance Based Logistics (PBL)
    4. The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS)
  6. Which of the following DoD Decision Support Systems has the objective of providing Combatant Commanders with the best mix of forces, equipment, and support attainable within established fiscal constraints?
    1. Performance Based Logistics (PBL)
    2. Joint Capabilities Integration and Development Systems (JCIDS)
    3. Defense Acquisition System
    4. Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE)


Test 2

  1. The incremental; strategy must be guided by the maturity of the technology not only in terms of technical performance, but also in terms of_______
    1. Total Cost
    2. Potential foreign sales
    3. Schedule
    4. Supportability
  2. Warfighters require weapons that are_____ when required and_____ when employed.
    1. Not available, ineffective
    2. Procured, effective
    3. Available, maintained
    4. Available, effective
  3. Which of the following items are provided to the AoA study team by the life cycle logistician?
    1. Affordability
    2. Performance attributes under consideration for the draft CDD
    3. Initial Concept of Operations
    4. All answers are correct
  4. The best opportunity for the life cycle logistician to influence future system availability and affect ASOE is during?
    1. Pre-acquisition
    2. Acquisition
    3. Disposal
    4. Sustainment
  5. What are the steps in Life Cycle Cost Estimating Process?
    1. Develop Approach and Scope, Prepare Estimate, Coordination
    2. Develop Approach and Scope, Form an IPT, Coordinate with PM
    3. Prepare Estimate, Brief PM, Brief D, CAPE
    4. There is no formal analytical approach
  6. The LCSP evolves at______ into a detailed execution plan for how the product support package is to be designed, acquired, sustained, and how sustainment will be applied, measured, managed, assessed, modified, and reported from system fielding through disposal?
    1. Milestone C
    2. Initial Operational Capability
    3. Milestone B
    4. Milestone A
  7. The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process is DoD’s primary resource allocation system, with the objective of providing the best mix of equipment, personnel, and support within established fiscal restraints?
    1. True
    2. False
  8. The JCIDS concepts (CCJO,JOC,JFC,JIC) drive the basic weapons system characteristic that will drive the ______ _______ requirements
    1. Presidents Budget
    2. Product support
    3. GAO review
    4. Foreign military sales

Test 3

  1. Which of the following are candidates for the Product Support Integrator role?
    1. A Third-party logistics integrator from the private sector
    2. DoD component organization or command
    3. The system’s original equipment manufacturer or prime contractor
    4. All answers are correct
  2. The main objective of logistics Test & Evaluation are to verify______
    1. Logistics support developed for the system is capable pf meeting the required objectives
    2. All answers are correct
    3. The developed system has desirable characteristics that minimize the need for logistics support
    4. The system can be supported when used during warfighting operations in its intended environment
  3. Failure Modes, Effects, and Criticality Analysis (FMECA) should be scheduled and completed concurrently as an integral part of the____ process
    1. Design
    2. Disposal
    3. Production
    4. Sustainment
  4. An evaluation of product support capabilities is performed during the____ phase
    1. O&S
    2. P&D
    3. EMD
    4. MSA
  5. Just as risk management can be applied in the design process, it can also be applied to the development of the _______
    1. Sustainment contracts
    2. Force Protection Key Performance Parameter
    3. Net-Ready Key Performance Parameter
    4. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan
  6. A Business Case Analysis (BCA) is an expanded_______ with the intent of determining a ____solution for product support
    1. Capabilities assessment, best value
    2. Cost/benefit analysis, best value
    3. Cost/benefit analysis, low cost
    4. Research paper, affordable
  7. The_______ are/is a measure of system supportability as it relates to the inherent system design as well as the efficiency and effectiveness of external logistic support
    1. Force Protection Key Performance Parameter
    2. Net-Ready Key Performance Parameter
    3. Sustainment Key Performance Parameter
    4. Survivability key performance parameter

Test 4

  1. Site Activation is ?
    1. The process used to sustain one or more product support sites
    2. The process used to provide logistics support at remote sites and Forward Operating Bases (FOBs)
    3. The process used to activate a system for fielding
    4. The process used to ready a site or location for the installation of a newly developed system
  2. Which of the following is a responsibility of the PSM?
    1. Periodically review product support arrangements between the PSIs and PSPs
    2. Develop and implement a comprehensive product support strategy
    3. All of the above
    4. Conduct appropriate cost analyses to validate the product support strategy
  3. Which of the following is system sustainment metric?
    1. Materiel Sustainment (MS)
    2. Mean Down Time
    3. Sustainment Availability (SA)
    4. Quantity of Configuration Changes
  4. Life cycle sustainment considerations during the O&S Phase includes all but which of the following?
    1. Interoperability
    2. Maintenance
    3. Configuration Management
    4. Manpower and Personnel
  5. Attainment of IOC is an important program milestone for which reason?
    1. The Point in a system’s acquisition life cycle when the total number of systems have been successfully fielded
    2. The system has completed its Full Rate Production Decision Review (FRPDR)
    3. It is the Point at which the program can report that the system has been successfully fielded
    4. The system design is certified by the year/Warfighter as ready for demilitarization
  6. System Fielding is defined as?
    1. The process used to activate a system in the field
    2. The process used to sustain one or more product support sites
    3. The process used to sustain a system in the field
    4. The process of transferring a new system or piece of equipment from the acquisition organization to the operating forces

Test 5

  1. _______ is a compilation of reliability, maintainability and delivery of efficient and effective logistics support
    1. Engineering
    2. Supportability
    3. Logistics
    4. Availability
  2. RCM seeks to manage the consequences of failure not to prevent all failures
    1. True
    2. False
  3. What is the purpose of the product Quality Deficiency Report?
    1. Report non-conformances
    2. All answers are correct
    3. Provide a vehicle to recover material cost
    4. Initiate steps to effect corrective and preventative actions
  4. Which of the following statements describes interoperability?
    1. Only hardware acquisitions must address interoperability
    2. Interoperability is primarily applicable to ACAT 1 programs
    3. Interoperability facilitates cooperation and synergy
    4. Interoperability is applicable primarily to software intensive acquisition programs
  5. The goal of CBM+ is to perform maintenance only when there is ______
    1. Nothing else on the schedule
    2. Evidence of need
    3. Available funding
    4. Available maintenance personnel
  6. The use of _______generally leads to more affordable and open systems design solutions because they encourage competition and innovation while protecting intellectual property rights of suppliers
    1. Economic analysis models
    2. Technical reviews
    3. Performance-oriented interface standards
    4. Affordability assessments
  7. The objective of____ is to achieve acceptable mishap risk through a systematic approach of hazard analysis, risk assessment, and risk management
    1. Operational assessment
    2. System safety
    3. Qualification testing
    4. Acquisition logistics
  8. The greater the openness of system interfaces, the easier it is to accomplish continuous modernization
    1. True
    2. False
  9. Ownership Cost is a subset of the total ownership cost, focusing on the______
    1. Research and development costs
    2. Low Rate Initial Production cost
    3. Full Rate Production cost
    4. Operations and support (O&S) cost
  10. The goal of monitoring field performance is to_____
    1. Identify opportunities for improving RAM
    2. All answers are correct
    3. Maintain RAM performance during operational life
    4. Identify RAM problems and prioritize those needing solutions
  11. Each PEO, or equivalent, shall have a ______ in charge of reviewing assigned programs’ System Engineering Plan (SEP) and overseeing their implementation
    1. Financial analyst
    2. Lead of chief engineer
    3. Life cycle logistician
    4. Contracting officer
  12. The effectiveness of proposed modifications should be thoroughly demonstrated by testing on system integration benches, test-rigs, trial equipment, or by prototypes prior to being authorized for incorporation within equipment
    1. True
    2. False
  13. Periodic technical review of the in-service system performance against baseline requirements, analysis of trends, and development of management options and resource requirements for resolution of operational issues should also be part of the ___ effort
    1. Sustaining
    2. Development
    3. Production
    4. Design
  14. Corrosion prevention and mitigation methods include ______
    1. Protective finishes
    2. All answers are correct
    3. Protection during shipment
    4. Use of effective design practices

Test 6

  1. What is a Configuration Item (CI)?
    1. Any item within a system that satisfies an end-use function, and is not designated for separate configuration management
    2. Any item within a system that satisfies an end-use function , and is designated for separate configuration management
    3. Any item within a system that satisfies a top-level function, and is not designated for separate configuration management
    4. Any item within a system identified on system drawings or specification
  2. Define Configuration Identification
    1. The Configuration Management (CM) process used to identify, document, justify, evaluate, approve, incorporate, and verify changes made to a system
    2. The process of selecting what items are to be placed under Configuration Management (CM) and documenting physical and functional characteristics of those items
    3. The process of recording Configuration Management (CM) information and the status of various actions under CM
    4. The Configuration Management (CM) process used to ensure that a system is capable of accomplishing what it is required to do
  3. What is the name of the Configuration Management (CM) program used to manage configuration changes?
    1. Configuration Change Management process
    2. None are correct
    3. Configuration Design Program
    4. Systems Alteration Program
  4. An Engineering Change Proposal (ECP) is a proposal change a Configuration Item’s approved baseline
    1. True
    2. False
  5. True or False? “The functional Baseline describes the required functionality of a system, and identifies all top-level functions that the system must perform, along with the required verification steps”
    1. True
    2. False
  6. True/False: The Product Baseline is an extension, or more detailed version of the Functional and Allocated Baselines
    1. True
    2. False

Test 7-8

  1. Defense Federal Acquisition Regulations (DFARS) require major programs to develop a long-term strategy integrating data requirements across all functional disciplines, to include logistics
    1. True
    2. False
  2. If the Technical Data Package (TDP) is not updated as part of the Engineering Change Proposal (ECP) process, then additional funding might have to be allocated to update the TDP, and could result in the technical data lagging actual system configuration
    1. True
    2. False
  3. Which of the following information would be classified as Technical Data?
    1. Information needed to operate the system
    2. Information needed to build the system
    3. All answers are correct
    4. Information needed to maintain the system
  4. The Technical and Logistics data in the Data Management Strategy (DMS) will be used in support of?
    1. All answers are correct
    2. Operation, support and improvement of the system
    3. Development and production of the system
    4. Demilitarization and disposal of the system
  5. Information Assurance (IA) can be described as those activities that protect and defend information systems
    1. True
    2. False
  6. The focus of the Global Information Grid (GIG) is
    1. Manage information for warfighters and policy makers
    2. All answers are correct
    3. Connecting operating locations
    4. Ensure a seamless integration of components
  7. The purpose of Anti-Tamper (AT) is to deter the reverse engineering and exploitation of our military’s critical technology in order to prevent:
    1. The development of countermeasures to US systems
    2. The alteration of system capability
    3. Technology transfer
    4. All of the answers are correct
  8. Which Data Rights Type means the right to use, modify, reproduce, perform, display, release, or disclose technical data in any manner for any purpose whatsoever, and to have or authorize others to do so?
    1. Government Purpose Rights (GPR)
    2. Specifically Negotiated License Rights (SNLR)
    3. Limited/Restricted
    4. Unlimited
  9. Since each Service manages the format of their Technical Manual/ Technical orders, there are not any applicable policy documents at the Department of Defense Level.
    1. True
    2. False
  10. Protecting critical military technology does not require DoD to invest in numerous protection activities
    1. True
    2. False
  11. The Program Manager is only responsible for protecting system data stored and managed by the government
    1. True
    2. False
  12. A DMS is required for which of the following
    1. ACAT I and ACAT II
    2. ACAT II
    3. Not required, but considered a Best Practice for all acquisition programs
    4. ACAT I
  13. As the Life Cycle Logistician on a Joint Program, you will have to be aware of the different requirements and potential impacts to program cost due to varying Technical Data formats
    1. True
    2. False
  14. The Data Management Strategy should include a description of the disciplined processes and systems that will be used to
    1. Plan for and acquire data throughout the life cycle
    2. Access and manage data throughout the life cycle
    3. None are correct
    4. Plan for, acquire, and/or access, manage, and use data throughout the life cycle
  15. Which of the following statements are true concerning Technical Data Rights?
    1. The key to success is ensuring requirements and strategy are identified and acted on early in the acquisition process to avoid unexpected cost to procure, reformat, or deliver technical data
    2. Data deliverables are delivered in response to contract requirements for data that has a predetermined content and format
    3. In general, the contractor continues to own the actual data or intellectual property and the government owns the deliverable and has license rights that govern how the data may be used
    4. All answers are true
  16. The Program Manager is responsible for protecting system data whether stored and managed by the government or by contractors
    1. True
    2. False
  17. Which of the following statements are true?
    1. All answers are true
    2. The activities must be fully integrated to attain robust protection to defeat a determined and sophisticated adversary
    3. These activities are applied throughout the acquisition life cycle to provide defense in depth
    4. Protecting critical military technology requires the DoD to invest numerous protection activities
  18. The overarching purpose of the Global Information Grid (GIG) is to provide the National Command Authority (NCA) with information superiority, decision superiority, and full-spectrum dominance.
    1. True
    2. False
  19. Proper application of the Configuration Management process to Technical Data Management will ensure that current Technical Data Packages (TDP) are available to support the weapon system
    1. True
    2. False

Test 9

  1. True/ False: Cataloging responsibilities within the DoD are primarily the responsibility of the individual Service rather than DLA
    1. True
    2. False
  2. Which one of the following attributes with supply chain performance requirements?
    1. Style
    2. Comfort
    3. Responsiveness
    4. Class
  3. What is the name of the DLA field activity that is responsible for the reutilization of DoD surplus property?
    1. DLA Transaction Services
    2. DLA Distribution
    3. DLA Disposition Services
    4. DLA logistics Information Services
  4. What is ERP?
    1. All of the answers are correct
    2. An integrated set of applications and middleware designed to manage resources at the enterprise level
    3. A means providing a consolidated suite of application capable of providing end-to-end management of an enterprise supply chain
    4. A method for planning and controlling the resource required to procure, make, transport, and account for customer orders using a range of automated information tools
  5. A parts management plan should address
    1. Parts list/BOM
    2. Obsolescence process
    3. Selection and authorization process
    4. All answers are correct
  6. Why is RFID technology important to the DoD?
    1. Implementation of RFID technologies will facilitate the integration of the DoD supply chain
    2. Implementation of RFID technologies will facilitate weapon system integration during Technology Development
    3. Implementation of RFID technology will allow the DoD to retire obsolete Identification of Friend or Foe (IFF) technologies in favor of RFID
    4. Implementation of RFID technology will facilitate the use of tactical radio systems used by the warfighter
  7. True/False: under the DoD requirements established for IUID, UIIs must be established and assigned to items with a unit acquisition cost of $500 or more
    1. True
    2. False
  8. Which of the following activities is a part of DoD Supply Chain Management Planning?
    1. War Reserve Requirements
    2. Provisioning
    3. Forecasting Customer Demand
    4. All of the answers are correct

Test 13

  1. Which of the following is a false statement?
    1. Tactics and strategy are separate, not linked processes
    2. The operational level of war is the level at which campaigns and major operations are planned, conducted and sustained
    3. Operational objectives are those needed to accomplish the strategic objective
    4. Tactics and strategy are linked at the operational level
  2. Which two of the following are true statements about step 2 of the DSOR process, known as the DMI review?
    1. Goal of the DMI review is to facilitate integration and consolidation of existing depot capabilities with the depot maintenance requirement of the new system
    2. The DMI review is required every seven (7) years
    3. The DMI review is optional
    4. The depot maintenance is planned, the DMI review is required regardless of whether the initial step determined organic or commercial support will be used
  3. Which one of the following is not an appropriate use of working Capital Funds?
    1. Financial maintenance tasks in advance of payment by system owners/end-users
    2. Financing inventories of supplies
    3. Maintenance salaries
    4. Providing working capital for DoD industrial activities
  4. Within the DoD, Automatic Test System (ATS) Enterprise Management is the responsibility of the:
    1. Director, Development Test and Evaluation
    2. Director for Performance Assessment and Root Cause Analyses
    3. DoD Executive Director for ATS
    4. Director, System Engineering
  5. True/False: If a Combatant Commander (CCDR) has reasonable doubt as to whether or not an essential service can be accomplished by a contractor, the CCDR should prepare a contingency plan for obtaining the service from alternative sources
    1. True
    2. False
  6. True/False: Maintenance program capabilities must be clearly linked to strategic and contingency planning
    1. True
    2. False
  7. In depot maintenance, what is the purpose of Surge?
    1. To reduce the quantity of systems that require depot-level maintenance
    2. To increase the rate at which systems can be repaired
    3. To increase the quantity of DoD civilian personnel at DoD Centers of Industrial and Technical Excellence (CITE)
    4. To provide forward depot-level maintenance capabilities in an operational environment
  8. What term us used by the DoD to describe rebuilding a system to a like-new, near zero-mile standard?
    1. Recapitalization
    2. Refit
    3. Replacement
    4. Renewal
  9. True/False: Support Equipment (SE) includes Automatic Test Equipment (ATE)
    1. True
    2. False
  10. True/ False: DoD Contingency planning is based on the determinations of the Joint Contingency Counsel (JCC)
    1. True
    2. False
  11. Identify the stakeholder in a PBL support arrangement that is responsible for developing and implementing a weapon system’s product support package?
    1. Program System Engineer (PSE)
    2. Contracting Officer (CO)
    3. Product Support Providers (PSP)
    4. Product Support Manager (PSM)

Test 14

  1. What causes obsolescence?
    1. Diminishing Manufacturing Sources and Material Shortages
    2. The development of a better item built on a newer and better technology
    3. Counterfeit Items
    4. Commercial Items
  2. Why are lead-free electronics superior to electronics manufactured with leaded solders and finishes?
    1. Lower Costs for reliability Testing
    2. None of the above
    3. Reduced probability of latent defects
    4. Greater Reliability
  3. Knowledge of counterfeit parts should be reported to GIDEP
    1. True
    2. False
  4. What is DMSMS?
    1. The loss or impending loss of manufacturing or suppliers of items or materials, leading to a shortage of a manufactured item or material
    2. A commercial manufacturing strategy adopted by manufacturers and suppliers for managing surplus inventory
    3. DoD controls established to prevent the loss of manufacturers and suppliers of items or materials
    4. The process established by the DoD to mitigate the unauthorized manufacture of counterfeit items
  5. Why was GIDEP established?
    1. To develop new database technologies for disseminating technical data and information
    2. To seek ways to reduce or eliminate unnecessary expenditures by sharing technical information between government and industry
    3. To seek ways to eliminate unauthorized dissemination of technical information between Government and industry
    4. To seek ways to eliminate the unnecessary storage of technical data and information

Test 15

  1. Which of the following is not a consideration when planning for DEMIL and disposal?
    1. Minimizing DEMIL and disposal cost
    2. Protecting the environment and personnel by minimizing ESOH impacts resulting from DEMIL and disposal activities
    3. Thoroughly addressing disassembly to the lowest level required to gain access to the item, component, or material requiring removal for DEMIL and disposal
    4. Reducing technology risk
  2. The PM may request that the Secretary of Defense waive the requirement for a RSSP. The waiver request shall provide rationale that satisfies which of the following statutory requirements for an exception?
    1. All answers are correct
    2. The mission has been consolidated with another mission in such a manner that another existing system can adequately meet the mission requirements
    3. The mission has been eliminated
    4. The existing system is no longer relevant to the mission
  3. Costs associated with demilitarization and disposal may include which of the following?
    1. Materials processing
    2. Disassembly
    3. Collection/storage/disposal of hazardous materials and/or waste
    4. All answers are correct
  4. ________ considerations are particularly critical during disposal, as there may be safety, security or health considerations that require intensive management of the systems DEMIL and disposal
    1. Financial
    2. Logistics
    3. Production
    4. Environmental
  5. Which of the following is considered by the PM when examining methods for disposal of the system?
    1. All answers are correct
    2. Environment, safety, and occupational health (ESOH)
    3. Demilitarization requirements
    4. Possible disposition methods
  6. The ____ document is a management tool used to help PMs identify and manage ESOH hazards and risks, and determine how best to meet ESOH regulatory requirements and DoD standards.
    1. LCSP
    2. RSSP
    3. LCSSP
    4. PESHE
  7. _____ is a DoD Component plan to sustain the system being replaced if the capability provided by the existing system remains necessary and relevant during fielding of and transition to the new system
    1. Risk management plan
    2. Life Cycle Sustainment Plan
    3. Life Cycle Signature Support Plan
    4. Replaced System Sustainment Plan
  8. A(n)____ process is a systematic approach to identify, analyze, and compare costs and benefits of alternative courses of action that achieve a given set of objectives
    1. Physical Configuration Audit
    2. Preliminary Design Review
    3. Economic or investment analysis
    4. Operational Assessment
Want a fresh copy of this Assignment


  • 24 x 7 Availability.
  • Trained and Certified Experts.
  • Deadline Guaranteed.
  • Plagiarism Free.
  • Privacy Guaranteed.
  • Free download.
  • Online help for all project.
  • Homework Help Services
Tap to Chat
Get Instant Assignment Help
Tap to Chat
Get Instant Assignment Help